MCQs on Current Affairs 16.12.2025

Q1. Which of the following initiatives was agreed upon as part of the elevation of India–Ethiopia bilateral relations to a Strategic Partnership?

Establishment of a joint space research centre in Addis Ababa
Signing of an MoU on Debt Restructuring under the G20 Common Framework
Creation of a free trade agreement between India and Ethiopia
Deployment of Indian combat troops in Ethiopia

Correct Option: 2. Signing of an MoU on Debt Restructuring under the G20 Common Framework.
Explanation: As part of the elevation of India–Ethiopia relations to a Strategic Partnership, several agreements and initiatives were announced covering economic, technological, educational, healthcare, and multilateral cooperation.
• Option 2 is correct because one of the key outcomes was the signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Debt Restructuring for Ethiopia under the G20 Common Framework, highlighting India’s support for Ethiopia’s economic stability and debt sustainability.
• Option 1 is incorrect as no joint space research centre was mentioned in the agreements.
• Option 3 is incorrect because while trade cooperation was enhanced through customs-related agreements, no Free Trade Agreement (FTA) was announced.
• Option 4 is incorrect since cooperation in peacekeeping was limited to training under UN Peacekeeping Operations, not deployment of combat troops.
Thus, the correct answer is 2.

Q2. Which of the following statements correctly describes the role of Agmarknet 2.0 and e-NAM in improving price transparency for farmers in India?

Agmarknet 2.0 focuses on online bidding and e-payments, while e-NAM only provides historical price data.
Agmarknet 2.0 provides real-time mandi price information, while e-NAM enables online bidding, price discovery, and e-payments.
Both Agmarknet 2.0 and e-NAM are time-bound schemes with fixed targets for mandi integration.
e-NAM replaces Agmarknet 2.0 by integrating all APMCs and mobile-based price services.

Correct Option: 2. Agmarknet 2.0 provides real-time mandi price information, while e-NAM enables online bidding, price discovery, and e-payments.
Explanation: The Government has taken multiple initiatives to improve price transparency and market access for farmers.
• Agmarknet 2.0 is an upgraded portal under the Marketing Research and Information Network (MRIN). It integrates APMCs across the country to provide real-time price and arrival information to farmers. The launch of the Agmarknet 2.0 Mobile App further enables on-the-spot data entry from mandis and mobile-based access to price information.
• e-NAM (e-National Agriculture Market) goes a step further by enabling online bidding, ensuring fair price discovery, and facilitating e-payments for timely payment to farmers. It also provides free mobile-based price information for 247 notified commodities.
• Option 2 is correct because it accurately distinguishes the complementary roles of Agmarknet 2.0 and e-NAM.
• Option 1 is incorrect as online bidding and e-payments are features of e-NAM, not Agmarknet.
• Option 3 is incorrect because e-NAM is a demand-driven scheme with no fixed time-bound expansion target.
• Option 4 is incorrect since e-NAM does not replace Agmarknet; both platforms function together to support farmers.
Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

Q3. What is the primary purpose of the “Sahakar DigiPay – UPI Switch” launched by NUCFDC?

To connect Urban Co-operative Banks to the UPI network with enhanced fraud control mechanisms
To enable cooperative banks to issue digital loans without RBI oversight
To replace existing payment systems used by commercial banks
To provide deposit insurance coverage to cooperative bank customers

Correct Option: 1. To connect Urban Co-operative Banks to the UPI network with enhanced fraud control mechanisms.
Explanation: The Sahakar DigiPay – UPI Switch is a key digital payments initiative launched by the National Urban Cooperative Finance and Development Corporation (NUCFDC) to strengthen the digital capabilities of Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs).
• Option 1 is correct because the platform is designed to connect UCBs to the UPI ecosystem, enabling them to offer seamless digital payment services. It incorporates advanced fraud prevention and risk control mechanisms, ensuring secure and reliable transactions.

Q4. Which of the following statements about India’s first AI-driven community screening programme for Diabetic Retinopathy (DR) launched by AFMS is correct?

The programme uses a web-based AI platform called MadhuNetrAI to automate retinal image analysis.
The pilot phase is being implemented exclusively in metropolitan cities of India.
Patients identified with DR will be treated only at the central AIIMS hospital.
The programme is unrelated to the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare’s digital initiatives.

Correct Option: 1. The programme uses a web-based AI platform called MadhuNetrAI to automate retinal image analysis.
Explanation:
• Option 1 – Correct:
True. The programme is anchored by MadhuNetrAI, a web-based AI platform developed by RPC, AIIMS.
It enables automated screening, grading, and triaging of retinal images captured using handheld fundus cameras, allowing trained personnel to conduct community-level screening.
• Option 2 – Incorrect:
The pilot is implemented at seven diverse locations: Pune, Mumbai, Bengaluru, Dharamshala, Gaya, Jorhat, and Kochi, covering metropolitan, rural, hilly, coastal, and remote regions.
It is not exclusive to metropolitan cities.
• Option 3 – Incorrect:
Patients with DR are referred for optimal diabetic management locally, while vision-threatening cases are referred to vitreo-retina specialists at designated District Hospitals.
Treatment is not limited to AIIMS.
• Option 4 – Incorrect:
The initiative is part of a collaboration with the eHealth AI Unit, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, making it directly related to MoHFW’s digital initiatives.

Q5. Which of the following statements regarding the Central Information Commission (CIC) is/are correct?

The Central Information Commission is a constitutional body established under the Right to Information Act, 2005.
The Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a committee headed by the Prime Minister.
The Central Information Commission acts as the final appellate authority in matters related to RTI applications concerning Central Government public authorities.

Options:

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

Correct Option: 2. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1 – Incorrect
The Central Information Commission is not a constitutional body. It is a statutory body established under the Right to Information Act, 2005.
• Statement 2 – Correct
The Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a committee consisting of:
• Prime Minister (Chairperson)
• Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
• A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister
• Statement 3 – Correct
The CIC functions as the final appellate authority for RTI appeals and complaints related to Central Government public authorities.

Q6. With reference to the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage (CLND) Act, 2010 and the SHANTI Bill, 2025, consider the following statements:

Under the CLND Act, 2010, nuclear plant operators had a statutory right of recourse against equipment suppliers in case of a nuclear accident.
The SHANTI Bill, 2025 grants statutory status to the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board and makes it answerable to Parliament.
The SHANTI Bill, 2025 completely removes all civil liability on nuclear power plant operators.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

Correct Option: 2. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1 – Correct
The CLND Act, 2010, particularly Section 17, provided the operator a right of recourse against suppliers in certain situations. This provision was a major concern for both domestic and foreign suppliers, as it exposed them to potentially unlimited liability.
• Statement 2 – Correct
The SHANTI Bill, 2025 proposes to give statutory backing to the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) and establishes a regulatory structure that is accountable to Parliament, strengthening institutional oversight.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect
The SHANTI Bill does not remove civil liability altogether. Instead, it limits and grades operator liability based on factors such as plant size and caps penalties, even in cases of severe breach.

Q7. The 2025 ICTP Prize was awarded to Titas Chanda and Sthitadhi Roy for their contributions primarily in which of the following areas?

Experimental particle physics and high-energy collider experiments
Astrophysics and cosmology related to dark matter
Quantum many-body systems at the interface of condensed matter physics and quantum information science
Nuclear physics and reactor design technologies

Correct Option: 3. Quantum many-body systems at the interface of condensed matter physics and quantum information science
Explanation: • The ICTP Prize recognised original theoretical work on quantum many-body systems, particularly focusing on:
• Non-equilibrium dynamics
•Quantum correlations
•Measurement-driven phase transitions
• The award-winning research bridges condensed matter physics (collective behaviour of materials) and quantum information science (entanglement, entropy, information processing).
• The other options relate to fields not associated with the contributions of the awardees.

Q8. Which of the following statements about Nvidia’s Nemotron 3 AI models is/are correct?

Nemotron 3 is a family of open-source large-language models designed for tasks such as writing and coding.
The Nemotron 3 Nano is the largest model in the Nemotron 3 family.
Nvidia’s Nemotron models are intended to compete with Chinese open-source AI offerings