MCQs on Current Affairs 28.01.2026

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Q1. Which of the following are key features of the AYUSHEXCIL–Zepto MoU?

  1. Promotion of AYUSH Quality Mark and identification of eligible MSME manufacturers
  2. Development of educational content and consumer awareness initiatives
  3. Hosting a dedicated AYUSH storefront on Zepto for verified products
  4. All of the above

Correct Option: 4. All of the above
Explanation:
The MoU includes:
1. Promotion of AYUSH Quality Mark (AQM) to ensure product authenticity and regulatory compliance.
2. Identification and recommendation of eligible manufacturers, with a focus on MSMEs.
3. Joint consumer awareness campaigns and development of credible educational content.
4. Dedicated AYUSH storefront on Zepto for easy access to verified products.
Therefore, all the listed features correctly describe the MoU, making D the correct answer.

Q2. Under the Solid Waste Management (SWM) Rules, 2026, which of the following statements regarding four-stream segregation of waste at source is correct?

  1. Wet waste includes used diapers, sanitary towels, and tampons.
  2. Dry waste is primarily kitchen waste such as vegetables, fruits, and flowers.
  3. Special care waste includes paint cans, bulbs, mercury thermometers, and medicines.
  4. Sanitary waste can be mixed with dry waste if securely wrapped.

Correct Option: 3. Special care waste includes paint cans, bulbs, mercury thermometers, and medicines.
Explanation:
• The SWM Rules, 2026 mandate four-stream segregation:
1. Wet waste → kitchen waste like vegetables, fruits, meat, flowers.
2. Dry waste → recyclable materials such as plastic, paper, metal, glass, wood, rubber.
3. Sanitary waste → used diapers, sanitary towels, tampons, condoms.
4. Special care waste → hazardous or sensitive items such as paint cans, bulbs, mercury thermometers, and medicines.
• Option 3 correctly identifies the contents of special care waste.
• Options 1 and 2 incorrectly assign items to wrong categories. Option D is incorrect as sanitary waste cannot be mixed with dry waste even if wrapped.

Q3. Which of the following is true regarding Bulk Waste Generators (BWGs) and Extended Bulk Waste Generator Responsibility (EBWGR) under the SWM Rules, 2026?

  1. BWGs are entities generating more than 50 kg/day of waste or consuming 20,000 litres of water/day.
  2. EBWGR allows BWGs to completely avoid waste processing responsibilities if registered online.
  3. BWGs include government departments, commercial establishments, and residential societies.
  4. EBWGR applies only to industries and not to institutions or public sector undertakings.

Correct Option: 3. BWGs include government departments, commercial establishments, and residential societies.
Explanation:
• Bulk Waste Generators (BWGs) are defined as entities generating ≥100 kg/day of solid waste, or with ≥20,000 sq.m area, or ≥40,000 litres/day water consumption.
• BWGs include government departments, PSUs, commercial establishments, institutions, and residential societies.
• Extended Bulk Waste Generator Responsibility (EBWGR) mandates BWGs to process wet waste on-site or obtain an EBWGR certificate if on-site processing isn’t feasible.
• Option 1 is incorrect because the thresholds are ≥100 kg/day waste, not 50 kg.
• Option 2 is incorrect; BWGs cannot avoid responsibilities simply by online registration.
• Option 4 is incorrect; EBWGR applies to all BWGs, including institutions, PSUs, and commercial establishments.

Q4. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the recent amendments to the NDCT (New Drugs and Clinical Trials) Rules, 2019?

  1. Test licences are still mandatory for all categories of drugs.
  2. Prior permission is no longer required for low-risk BA/BE studies; they can start on online intimation.
  3. The processing timeline for test licences has increased from 45 days to 90 days.
  4. The reforms eliminate the need for CDSCO oversight in pharmaceutical research.

Correct Option: 2. Prior permission is no longer required for low-risk BA/BE studies; they can start on online intimation.
Explanation:
• The amendments allow low-risk Bioavailability/Bioequivalence studies to commence based on online intimation instead of prior permission, accelerating research.
• Option 1 is incorrect: high-risk drugs still require test licences.
• Option 3 is incorrect: the timeline for test licences has been reduced from 90 days to 45 days, not increased.
• Option 4 is incorrect: CDSCO oversight continues to ensure safety and compliance.

Q5. As per OPEC World Oil Outlook 2025, By 2050, India’s total primary energy demand is expected to:

  1. Decrease slightly due to renewable energy adoption.
  2. Remain around 22 million barrels of oil equivalent per day.
  3. Almost double to approximately 43.6 million barrels of oil equivalent per day.
  4. Exceed global primary energy demand.

Correct Option: 3. Almost double to approximately 43.6 million barrels of oil equivalent per day.
Explanation:
• The OPEC World Oil Outlook 2025 projects that India’s total primary energy demand will nearly double, increasing from ~22 million boe/day in 2024 to ~43.6 million boe/day by 2050.
• Option 1 is incorrect: While renewable energy will grow, total energy demand will increase, driven by economic growth, industrialisation, and population growth.
• Option 2 is incorrect: The demand does not remain constant; it almost doubles.
• Option 4 is incorrect: India’s demand will rise significantly but will not exceed global primary energy demand (~378 million boe/day by 2050).

Q6. Which of the following best describes the composition of the Karnataka Platform-Based Gig Workers Welfare Development Board?

  1. It consists only of government officials from the Labour and IT Departments
  2. It includes equal representation from gig worker unions and aggregator platforms along with government officials
  3. It is composed entirely of representatives from private aggregator companies
  4. It includes representatives from the Union government and international labour organisations

Correct Option: 2. It includes equal representation from gig worker unions and aggregator platforms along with government officials
Explanation:
The Board has a balanced and inclusive composition. It includes the Labour Minister as ex-officio President, senior officials from relevant State departments as ex-officio members, and four representatives each from gig worker unions and aggregator platforms such as Zomato, Uber, Amazon, and Porter. This structure ensures representation of both workers and platforms, along with government oversight, making option 2 correct.

Q7. What is the primary reason for engaging private technical staff for Census 2027?

  1. To replace government enumerators with private agencies
  2. To reduce the cost of conducting the Census
  3. To support the technologically intensive digital Census and enable faster data release
  4. To permanently strengthen the staffing of the Registrar-General’s office

Correct Option: 3. To support the technologically intensive digital Census and enable faster data release
Explanation:
Census 2027 will be India’s first fully digital Census, using mobile applications, the Census Management and Monitoring System (CMMS), HLBC web application, and a self-enumeration portal. The engagement of private technical manpower is intended to assist government officials in handling these digital platforms and ensure that digitised data is captured directly from the field, enabling quicker processing and release of Census data. The staff are not replacing enumerators, are not permanent, and are not engaged primarily for cost-cutting, making option 3 correct.

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