Q1. The two-pronged strategy under the Nuclear Energy Mission for Viksit Bharat primarily focuses on:
- Developing only imported reactors and phasing out indigenous technology
- Deploying large reactors for rapid expansion and SMRs for flexible, brownfield applications
- Replacing all thermal plants with solar-nuclear hybrid plants
- Constructing only fast breeder reactors to meet the 2047 target
Correct Option: 2. Deploying large reactors for rapid expansion and SMRs for flexible, brownfield applications.
Explanation: The mission outlines a two-pronged strategy:
• Large reactors such as 700 MWe indigenous PHWRs and large imported reactors for rapid expansion at greenfield sites.
• Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) like BSMR-200 and SMR-55 for brownfield use, including repurposing old fossil-fuel plants, industrial captive power, and off-grid applications.
Q2. Which of the following statements correctly describes the role of BARC in the Nuclear Energy Mission?
- BARC is designing SMRs and enabling indigenous technological capability for nuclear manufacturing
- BARC manages all uranium deposits and mining operations in India
- BARC’s role is limited to running existing nuclear reactors
- BARC only regulates safety of uranium mining operations
Correct Option: 1. BARC is designing SMRs and enabling indigenous technological capability for nuclear manufacturing
Explanation: BARC has initiated the design and development of:
• BSMR-200 (200 MWe)
• SMR-55 (55 MWe)
• High-temperature gas-cooled reactors (up to 5 MWth) for hydrogen production.
• It also provides technological handholding to Indian industries for manufacturing nuclear reactor components.
• Option 4 is incorrect because AERB, not BARC, is responsible for radiological safety regulation.
• Option 2 is incorrect because AMD handles uranium resource exploration, not BARC.
• Option 3 is incorrect because BARC’s functions extend far beyond running reactors—it is primarily a research and technology development institution.
Q3. Which of the following best describes the significance of Exercise Garuda-VIII (2025) for the Indian Air Force (IAF)?
- It focused exclusively on humanitarian assistance and disaster relief operations.
- It enabled joint mission planning, complex air operations, and strengthened interoperability with the French Air and Space Force.
- It was conducted to test only the newly inducted aircraft of the IAF.
- It was primarily a naval aviation exercise involving carrier-based operations.
Correct Option: 2. It enabled joint mission planning, complex air operations, and strengthened interoperability with the French Air and Space Force.
Explanation:
Exercise Garuda-VIII was a bilateral Indo–French air exercise held at Mont-de-Marsan, France, involving the IAF and the French Air and Space Force (FASF).
The primary focus was on conducting complex air operations, including:
• Joint mission planning
• Coordinated strike and escort missions
• Familiarisation with each other’s operational procedures
These activities directly contributed to enhancing interoperability, which is essential for combined air operations during real-world contingencies.
It was also one of the largest international air training engagements of the IAF in 2025, offering significant operational insights and improving war-fighting capabilities.
Q4. Under the Deep Ocean Mission (DOM), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- India’s exploration of polymetallic nodules (PMN) in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) is based on a contract signed with the International Seabed Authority (ISA).
- The Offshore Areas Mineral (Development and Regulation) Act (OAMDR) regulates all offshore minerals including hydrocarbons.
- Environmental baseline studies and biodiversity assessments are mandatory components of ISA-approved exploration plans.
Select the correct answer:
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: 3. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct
• India signed a 2002 contract with the ISA for exploration of polymetallic nodules (PMN) in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB).
• Therefore, PMN exploration is indeed based on an ISA contract.
Statement 2: Incorrect
• The OAMDR Act (amended 2023) applies to all minerals in offshore areas except mineral oils and hydrocarbons.
• Hence, it does not regulate hydrocarbons.
Statement 3: Correct
• The article clearly states that environmental baseline studies, including biodiversity assessments, are integral components of the ISA-approved plan of work for deep-sea mineral exploration.
Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect → Option C.
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the integration of Passport Verification Records (PVR) with DigiLocker:
- The integration allows citizens to access, store, share, and digitally verify PVRs within DigiLocker.
- DigiLocker PVRs require physical attested copies for verification in official processes.
- The initiative supports paperless governance and reduces reliance on physical documents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: 3. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct
• The integration allows citizens to access, store, share, and digitally verify their Passport Verification Records (PVR) directly through the DigiLocker platform.
• PVRs appear in the “Issued Documents” section once verification is successful.
Statement 2: Incorrect
• DigiLocker eliminates the need for physical attested copies.
• Citizens can digitally share their PVR with authorized requesters, which is secure, tamper-proof, and instantly verifiable.
Statement 3: Correct
• The initiative promotes paperless governance, reducing manual paperwork and reliance on physical documents.
• Supports environmentally responsible practices and aligns with Digital India objectives.
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana (PMKSY):
- PMKSY is a central sector, demand-driven scheme and funds under its components are allocated state-wise.
- Farmers Producing Organisations (FPOs) under PMKSY are eligible for a higher subsidy/grant-in-aid compared to general category applicants.
- FPOs have lower equity contribution and net-worth requirements compared to general category applicants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: 2. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1: Incorrect
• PMKSY is a central sector, demand-driven scheme.
• Funds are not allocated, sanctioned, or released on a state-wise basis.
• Therefore, statement 1 is wrong.
Statement 2: Correct
• FPOs receive special benefits in financial assistance, including:
• 50% subsidy of eligible project cost (vs. 35% for general category).
• 70% subsidy under Food Safety & Quality Assurance scheme (vs. 50% for general category).
• This shows higher financial support for FPOs → statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3: Correct
• FPOs have lower equity contribution (10% vs. 20%) and lower net-worth requirement (equal to grant-in-aid sought vs. 1.5 times for general category).
• This reduces the financial burden on FPOs → statement 3 is correct.
Q7. Under the PMFME Scheme, which of the following approaches is primarily used to promote the “Vocal for Local” initiative in the food processing sector?
- Cluster-based industrialization approach
- One District One Product (ODOP) approach
- Export-oriented production zones
- Mega Food Park development approach
Correct Option: 2. One District One Product (ODOP) approach
Explanation:
• The PM Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PMFME) Scheme explicitly adopts the ODOP approach to promote local products and support balanced regional growth.
• Under this approach, each district selects one primary product (including GI-tagged items) based on local strengths, resources, and existing ecosystems.
• The scheme then provides financial, technical, and branding support to build value chains around that product, thus strengthening the “Vocal for Local” movement.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 refer to other development models but are not the main approach used under the PMFME Scheme for promoting local products.
Q8. According to the Annual Ground Water Quality Report 2025, what is the status of Fluoride concentration in Katni district of Madhya Pradesh?
- Fluoride levels exceeded the BIS permissible limit in most monitored locations
- Fluoride levels exceeded the permissible limit only in a few locations
- Fluoride levels were within the BIS permissible limit at all monitored locations
- Fluoride was not monitored in Katni district
Correct Option: 3. Fluoride levels were within the BIS permissible limit at all monitored locations
Explanation:
• The article clearly states that all 16 monitored locations in Katni district (Madhya Pradesh) showed Fluoride concentrations within the BIS permissible limit of 1.5 mg/L, as per IS 10500:2012.
• This indicates no Fluoride contamination issues in the district.
Q9. Under Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) – Har Ghar Jal, which institution is responsible for planning, implementing, managing, operating, and maintaining the in-village water supply system?
- District Water & Sanitation Mission (DWSM)
- State Water Supply Department
- Gram Panchayat or its sub-committee/Village Water & Sanitation Committee (VWSC)
- Ministry of Jal Shakti
Correct Option: 3. Gram Panchayat or its sub-committee/Village Water & Sanitation Committee (VWSC)
Explanation:
• The article clearly states that, in alignment with the 73rd Constitutional Amendment, JJM emphasizes village-level planning and community ownership.
Accordingly, Gram Panchayats or their sub-committees/user groups such as the VWSC/Pani Samiti are empowered to take full responsibility for:
• Planning
• Implementation
• Management
• Operation
• Maintenance
of the in-village water supply system.
This decentralised approach ensures community involvement, sustainable functioning, and accountability at the village level.
Q10. Which of the following statements about the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS) in India is correct?
- Thermal power plants have been transitioned from the PAT scheme to the CCTS Compliance Mechanism.
- Only Obligated Entities under the Compliance Mechanism can earn Carbon Credit Certificates.
- Non-Obligated Entities can voluntarily participate under the Offset Mechanism to earn Carbon Credit Certificates.
- The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) functions as the Registry under CCTS.
Correct Option: 3. Non-Obligated Entities can voluntarily participate under the Offset Mechanism to earn Carbon Credit Certificates.
Explanation:
• CCTS Structure:
•Administered by Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).
•Grid India serves as the Registry.
•Overseen by the National Steering Committee, co-chaired by Secretaries of the Ministries of Power and Environment, Forest & Climate Change.
Mechanisms under CCTS:
1. Compliance Mechanism:
•Covers Obligated Entities, i.e., emission-intensive industries.
•Entities meeting or exceeding GEI targets earn Carbon Credit Certificates.
2. Offset Mechanism:
•Allows Non-Obligated Entities to voluntarily register projects that reduce, remove, or avoid GHG emissions.
•Eligible projects receive Carbon Credit Certificates.
•This makes Option C correct.
Why other options are incorrect:
• 1 → Thermal power plants have not transitioned to the CCTS Compliance Mechanism.
• 2 → Both Obligated Entities (Compliance) and Non-Obligated Entities (Offset) can earn Carbon Credit Certificates.
• 4 → Grid India functions as the Registry, not BEE.
Q11. Which of the following biological effects were observed in human epithelial cells upon prolonged exposure to nanoplastics derived from PET bottles?
- Enhanced bacterial growth and reduced stress response
- DNA damage, oxidative stress, apoptosis, and inflammatory signaling
- Improved red blood cell stability and oxygen transport
- Increased nutrient absorption and metabolic efficiency
Correct Option: 2. DNA damage, oxidative stress, apoptosis, and inflammatory signaling.
Explanation:
• The study conducted by Institute of Nano Science and Technology (INST), Mohali investigated the effects of nano-plastics from PET bottles on multiple biological systems, including human epithelial cells.
Findings in epithelial cells included:
• DNA damage: Indicating genotoxic stress.
• Oxidative stress: Increase in reactive oxygen species disrupting cellular function.
• Apoptosis: Programmed cell death triggered by prolonged exposure.
• Inflammatory signaling: Activation of immune-related pathways in response to nano-plastics.
These effects demonstrate that nanoplastics are biologically active and pose risks to human health.
Why other options are incorrect
• A → Enhanced bacterial growth is opposite to the observed effect; nanoplastics reduced growth in gut bacteria.
• C → Nanoplastics disrupted red blood cells rather than improving stability or oxygen transport.
• D → Nutrient absorption and metabolism were negatively affected, not improved.
Hence, Option B correctly reflects the impact of nanoplastics on human epithelial cells.