Q1. Which of the following best explains the purpose of extending the Pro Tem Security Certification Scheme by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT)?
- To permanently exempt telecom equipment from security testing
- To allow uninterrupted business operations while security testing is ongoing
- To replace the Indian Telecommunication Security Assurance Requirements (ITSAR)
- To restrict the entry of foreign telecom equipment manufacturers
Correct Option: 2. To allow uninterrupted business operations while security testing is ongoing
Explanation:
• The Pro Tem Security Certification Scheme was introduced to avoid disruption in business processes when security certification became mandatory.
• Under this scheme, OEMs can continue selling and deploying telecom equipment based on a declaration of conformance while formal testing is carried out in Telecom Security Testing Laboratories (TSTLs).
• The extension of the scheme for two more years from 01-01-2026 ensures:
• Smooth product launches
• Continuity of existing product lines
• Adequate time to complete security testing
• The scheme does not eliminate security requirements (rejects 1 and 3) and applies to both domestic and international OEMs (rejects 4).
Q2. How does the simplification of ITSAR certification for Optical Network Terminator (ONT) devices benefit the telecom industry?
- By eliminating mandatory security certification for ONTs
- By allowing self-certification without testing
- By reducing the number of required security tests through grouping of similar variants
- By limiting ONT certification only to government manufacturers
Correct Option: 3. By reducing the number of required security tests through grouping of similar variants
Explanation:
• ONT devices often have multiple customized variants with different hash values despite identical software versions.
• Earlier, each variant required separate security certification, leading to:
• High costs
• Increased testing time
• Industry representations seeking relief
• NCCS introduced a single certification mechanism for such variants, reducing:
• The number of testing cases by approximately 10 times
• Overall compliance cost and time
• Mandatory certification for ONTs still applies from 01-01-2026, so options 1 and 2 are incorrect.
• The reform applies across the industry, not only government manufacturers (rejects 4).
Q3. What is the primary objective of recognising private entities as Government Approved Test Centres (GATCs) under the amended Legal Metrology framework?
- To replace State Legal Metrology Departments
- To privatise enforcement of legal metrology laws
- To expand verification capacity and improve regulatory efficiency through public–private partnership
- To eliminate the role of National Test House (NTH) laboratories
Correct Option: 3. To expand verification capacity and improve regulatory efficiency through public–private partnership
Explanation:
• The recognition of private entities as Government Approved Test Centres (GATCs) aims to expand verification and re-verification capacity beyond the public sector.
• This reform introduces a structured public–private partnership (PPP) model, allowing technically qualified private laboratories and industries to participate.
• The objectives include:
• Faster verification and reduced turnaround time
• Improved ease of doing business
• Strengthened accuracy and reliability in weights and measures
• State Legal Metrology Departments, RRSLs, and NTH labs continue to play an important role, ruling out options 1 and 4.
• Enforcement powers remain with Legal Metrology Officers, not private entities (eliminates 2).
Q4. Which of the following best reflects the significance of the amendment to the Legal Metrology (Government Approved Test Centre) Rules, 2013 notified in October 2025?
- It made verification of weighing instruments voluntary
- It restricted verification of instruments only to government laboratories
- It reduced the number of instruments requiring verification
- It expanded the scope of GATCs to cover 18 categories of modern weighing and measuring instruments
Correct Option: 4. It expanded the scope of GATCs to cover 18 categories of modern weighing and measuring instruments
Explanation:
• The amended Rules (23 October 2025) significantly expanded the scope of GATCs, allowing both government and qualified private entities to verify instruments.
•
18 categories of instruments are now covered, addressing evolving needs in sectors such as:
• Healthcare (clinical thermometers, sphygmomanometers)
• Transport (vehicle speed meters, breath analysers)
• Energy and utilities (water, gas, energy meters)
• Infrastructure and trade (weighbridges, load cells, tape measures)
• The amendment strengthens alignment with international best practices and modern technological requirements.
• Verification remains mandatory, not voluntary, and the scope has expanded rather than restricted—eliminating options 1, 2, and 3.
Q5. Which combination of DRDO laboratories was primarily responsible for the design and development of the Pinaka Long Range Guided Rocket (LRGR-120)?
- DRDL and ADE with support from NAL
- ARDE in association with HEMRL, with support from DRDL and RCI
- RCI alone with ITR as the design agency
- HEMRL and P&EE with support from BEL
Correct Option: 2. ARDE in association with HEMRL, with support from DRDL and RCI
Explanation:
• The Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE) served as the lead design agency for the LRGR-120.
• It worked in association with the High Energy Materials Research Laboratory (HEMRL).
• Additional technical support was provided by:
• Defence Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL)
• Research Centre Imarat (RCI)
• ITR and Proof & Experimental Establishment (P&EE) coordinated the trial, but were not design agencies, ruling out options 1, 3, and 4.
Q6. What is the primary significance of INSV Kaundinya undertaking its maiden overseas voyage from Porbandar to Muscat?
- It marks India’s first naval combat deployment in the Arabian Sea
- It aims to test new naval propulsion technologies
- It revives ancient maritime trade routes and strengthens India–Oman maritime heritage ties
- It establishes a permanent Indian naval base in Oman
Correct Option: 3. It revives ancient maritime trade routes and strengthens India–Oman maritime heritage ties
Explanation:
• INSV Kaundinya retraces ancient maritime routes that historically connected the western coast of India, especially Gujarat, with Oman.
• The voyage is heritage-driven, not military or technological testing in nature.
• It seeks to:
• Revive India’s indigenous shipbuilding and navigation traditions
• Reinforce shared civilisational and cultural links between India and Oman
Q7. Which of the following best describes the construction and design philosophy of INSV Kaundinya?
- Built using modern composite materials and automated fabrication
- Designed exclusively for high-speed naval patrol operations
- Constructed using traditional stitched shipbuilding techniques based on historical and iconographic evidence
- Manufactured under a foreign collaboration for heritage tourism
Correct Option: 3. Constructed using traditional stitched shipbuilding techniques based on historical and iconographic evidence
Explanation:
• INSV Kaundinya has been indigenously built using traditional stitched shipbuilding techniques.
•
The vessel uses:
• Natural materials
• Ancient construction methods dating back several centuries
•
Its design draws from:
• Historical texts
• Iconographic and archaeological evidence
Q8. The term “Valley of Death” in the context of the National Technology Readiness Assessment Framework (NTRAF) refers to which of the following?
- Failure of technologies after commercial launch
- The gap between fundamental research and proof of concept
- Funding and transition challenges between TRL 4 and TRL 7
- Lack of skilled manpower in deeptech sectors
Correct Option: 3. Funding and transition challenges between TRL 4 and TRL 7
Explanation:
The “Valley of Death” refers to the critical phase between TRL 4 (prototype development) and TRL 7 (system demonstration in operational environment).
At this stage:
• Technologies are too advanced for pure research grants
• Yet too risky for private investment
Q9. Which property of rare-earth elements makes them especially suitable for high-performance permanent magnets?
- Their high electrical conductivity
- The presence of localized 4f electrons that provide strong magnetic moments and stability
- Their ability to form covalent bonds easily
- Their abundance in the Earth’s crust
Correct Option: 2. The presence of localized 4f electrons that provide strong magnetic moments and stability
Explanation:
Rare-earth elements have electrons in the 4f shell that are localized close to the nucleus.
These 4f electrons:
• Carry large magnetic moments, allowing strong magnetisation.
• Are less affected by surrounding atoms, giving magnetic stability.
Additionally, magnetocrystalline anisotropy aligns and “pins” the magnetic moments in a preferred direction, preventing demagnetisation due to heat, vibration, or opposing magnetic fields.
This combination is why rare-earth magnets (like neodymium-iron-boron magnets) are used in electric motors, generators, and wind turbines.
Q10. Which of the following statements about Vizhinjam International Seaport is/are correct?
- The port handled over one million TEU within 10 months of operation.
- The berth length is planned to be expanded from 800 m to 2,000 m.
- The port has not yet handled ultra-large container vessels.
Select the correct answer:
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: 1. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct:
Vizhinjam achieved the milestone of 1 million TEU in just 10 months, an exceptional performance for a new port.
•
Statement 2 is correct:
Under the upcoming phases, the berth length will be expanded from 800 metres to 2,000 metres, significantly increasing capacity.
•
Statement 3 is incorrect:
The port has already handled 43 ultra-large container vessels and 154 ships longer than 300 metres, the highest among Indian ports.